Is John 1:18 translated poorly in the English Standard Bible? - Quora

Answer (1 of 18): In regards to John 1.18, the root of the issue between the KJV and ESV is not in translation, but rather in the underlying Greek texts used to translate each. Simply put, the KJV is translated from different source material than the ESV. So rather than translation, this become

Is there another way to translate 'word'from the original Greek as in John 1:1? - Quora

Why didn't Jesus know that he was God? - Quora

What does John 1:1 say in other Bible translations? - Quora

Can't we use John 10: 30 “I and the Father are one” to prove the Trinity? - Quora

What does John 1:1 say in other Bible translations? - Quora

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable? - Quora

How did the Bible look some 500 years ago? Were the verses numbered as it is today? - Quora

What does the earliest manuscript for the New Testament look like? - Quora

John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.